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Re: Behaviour of \latinfamily
- To: rebecca@astrid.u-net.com
- Subject: Re: Behaviour of \latinfamily
- From: Sebastian Rahtz <s.rahtz@elsevier.co.uk>
- Date: Tue, 26 May 1998 13:46:54 +0100
- Cc: fontinst@cogs.susx.ac.uk
- In-Reply-To: <l03130301b1905e0e4f76@[194.119.133.41]>
- References: <l03130305b18ff73776d2@[194.119.133.37]> <6720-Tue26May1998103412+0100-s.rahtz@elsevier.co.uk> <l03130301b1905e0e4f76@[194.119.133.41]>
Rebecca and Rowland writes:
> Ha ha very funny. Done that. Makes no sense to me at all. If it did make
> any sense to me, I wouldn't be asking, would I?
it must make *some* sense....
>
> Goes via 8a what exactly? afm, mtx, pl? And what other files does it look
> for?
Ulrik explains this better than me. first afm, then mtx
> Very good. I've looked at that macro and I can't work out what it does. I
> can understand virtually none of the fontinst source code. Can you explain?
ask again if Ulrik's note was unclear
> Under what circumstances exactly? I've never seen it do the {ui}{it}
> substitution.
because shape ui is not requested by \latin_family. it only asks for
\def\latin_shapes{
\latin_shape{} {} {} {n}
\latin_shape{c}{c}{} {sc}
\latin_shape{o}{o}{} {sl}
\latin_shape{i}{i}{i}{it}
}
so he ui=it substitution is never activated.
you are screaming now, aren't you?
sebastian